Rufy
Guest
Good morning to all, I am proceeding to analyses concerning the pins of the lifting arm of a ground moving machine.
I have determined various states of critical stress for the machine on which static analyses have already been made on the structures and on which I would also perform static analysis of the pins.
the problem survives not so much in the procedure of fatigue testing, as in determining the actual forces on which to work: I'll explain.
It is obvious that there are peak forces due to obstacles or working conditions at the limit, but I do not think that these are the conditions to which to make a check to fatigue, because the pin would be too oversized! what forces then consider? also the fatigue cycle of what type is it? will never be symmetrical alternation, but will tend more to be asymmetrical alternation in traction and/or compression. but there is a difference, for example, regarding the pins of the bucket fulcrum or bucket cylinders and the pins of the lifting cylinders, which at the limit have a cycle also button from the zero (they are always pushed, unlike the others who have load cycles and discharge).
this according to my knowledge, but the intent of my questions is the comparison with someone more experienced, with more experience than me. maybe have some "solid" indication to refer to, so be sure of the assumptions adopted, or if there is any official document to rely on.
a final clarification concerns the pattern of the moment in the pin, schematized as a beam on two supports. in the external bushings there is a triangular pattern, while on the bushings in the center perno the trend is rectangular. is present then the game between external bushings and internal bushing. I uploaded an image to clarify
image.jpg
between we leave the pattern and we refer only to the lengths lb1 lbb and g. according to the scheme the arm would be given by lb1/3+g+lbb/2, but I was told that considering this arm (which represents the arm of the ideal scheme presumed) the pins are too oversized; the experience suggests to represent the lbb bushing as a perfect fit and limit the arm to lb1/3+g. Does anyone confirm this hypothesis?
My doubt arises from these considerations: why not consider as arm lbb/2+g and recess on lb1? under these assumptions should not be lb1/3+g = lbb/2 + g??? Moreover if it is true that the pin wrapped by a bushing does not flet, then should not flet only where there is the game between the bushings?
In short, the simplifications that have suggested that I do not seem too clear.
Thank you.
I have determined various states of critical stress for the machine on which static analyses have already been made on the structures and on which I would also perform static analysis of the pins.
the problem survives not so much in the procedure of fatigue testing, as in determining the actual forces on which to work: I'll explain.
It is obvious that there are peak forces due to obstacles or working conditions at the limit, but I do not think that these are the conditions to which to make a check to fatigue, because the pin would be too oversized! what forces then consider? also the fatigue cycle of what type is it? will never be symmetrical alternation, but will tend more to be asymmetrical alternation in traction and/or compression. but there is a difference, for example, regarding the pins of the bucket fulcrum or bucket cylinders and the pins of the lifting cylinders, which at the limit have a cycle also button from the zero (they are always pushed, unlike the others who have load cycles and discharge).
this according to my knowledge, but the intent of my questions is the comparison with someone more experienced, with more experience than me. maybe have some "solid" indication to refer to, so be sure of the assumptions adopted, or if there is any official document to rely on.
a final clarification concerns the pattern of the moment in the pin, schematized as a beam on two supports. in the external bushings there is a triangular pattern, while on the bushings in the center perno the trend is rectangular. is present then the game between external bushings and internal bushing. I uploaded an image to clarify
image.jpg
between we leave the pattern and we refer only to the lengths lb1 lbb and g. according to the scheme the arm would be given by lb1/3+g+lbb/2, but I was told that considering this arm (which represents the arm of the ideal scheme presumed) the pins are too oversized; the experience suggests to represent the lbb bushing as a perfect fit and limit the arm to lb1/3+g. Does anyone confirm this hypothesis?
My doubt arises from these considerations: why not consider as arm lbb/2+g and recess on lb1? under these assumptions should not be lb1/3+g = lbb/2 + g??? Moreover if it is true that the pin wrapped by a bushing does not flet, then should not flet only where there is the game between the bushings?
In short, the simplifications that have suggested that I do not seem too clear.
Thank you.
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