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calculation of calibrated diaphragm flow

  • Thread starter Thread starter TECNOMODEL
  • Start date Start date
the area served me only to find the equivalent ø, that I inserted it in meters.
If I express the area in meters then I get a diameter in meters, it should not change anything.
Right?
 
mistakes that sqrt( density * pressure) will never make a speed.... if anything is sqrt(pressure/density):

(kg*m/s^2)/m^2; rho = kg/m^3 .

make the simplifications and then the root and you will return m/s.
I did not understand what you are referring to, I was applying the formula indicated by mechanicsmg.......
 
I apologized not to have read the previous posts, I am accustomed to q = a*sqrt( 2p/rho) which is a volumetric flow.... its is premultiplicated for rho because it is the expression of a mass flow
 
I apologized not to have read the previous posts, I am accustomed to q = a*sqrt( 2p/rho) which is a volumetric flow.... its is premultiplicated for rho because it is the expression of a mass flow
so you to get a multiply flow "only" the area *sqrt?
what units do you use?
 
the root comes out from the reversal of the bernoulal theorem, assuming initial speed nothing, and obviously represents a speed. multiplying through the passage area you get the volumetric flow, multiplying by the density you get the mass flow. this obviously from the ideal point of view. in reality at the exit of the hole you will have a contracted vein, hence the need for contraction coefficients that are experimental and usually tabulated according to other parameters of your system. Mechanicalmg skipped the multiplication by density by incorporating everything into one equation that from the mass flow by result. the units are those of the s.i.
 
but is this orifice the only thing in the plant? I think it's kind of weird if it wasn't. the orifice at that point you have to consider it as a localized pressure drop. .evaluate the flow of the circuit considering the other losses and then calculate the relative speed.
 
in reality it is not in a plant but inside a pump.
is used to bring a quantity of oil for lubrication by taking it from a pressure duct.
 
Okay maybe I get it.. you have a pressure oil and you want to take a known amount. the problem is that you also need to know the pressure to the other end of the circuit. This oil goes inside the pump, and there will be load losses.. in a well-known pressure tank?
 
the oil goes inside the pump in a pressure zone 0 (or better, at ambient pressure).
from here comes out through the drainage outlet and goes into the reservoir, always at room pressure.
 
That's exactly the value I don't get.
I have a drainage of the whole pump of 10/12 l/min, the flow of that orifice should be a small part of these 10/12.
 
the problem is that this calculation presupposes a practically infinite source at costly pressure. If you can't provide that flow to that pressure, the upstream pressure will flow. I don't think you have a system that can pump 0.3 m3/s of oil to 79 bar..
or, downstream of the orifice generates a counter-pressure
 
Hello, I have the problem of calculating the diameter of the orifice to reduce the pressure as I can do
 
If you do everything in excel you find the solution alone. If you want lower pressure you need to increase the pass area.
 
If you do everything in excel you find the solution alone. If you want lower pressure you need to increase the pass area.
Do I have to use this formula? and try to change values until the q flow meets me?

63e964d0-7647-40e8-83ce-fe84208b9435.webpI have known:

flow q: 3570,88 lt/min
delta p: 2 bar
diam tube: 159 mm
fluid density; 1,33 water
 
if you read everything from the first post, you will find all your answers, including formulas. It's just a matter of wanting.
 

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